The question was put to me that “If God predestines, why would He create people for the purpose of sending them to hell?” It’s a reasonable question to ask. After all, how would it be loving or even just for God to do such a thing? At least this was the objection as it was put to me.
I understand that this is a controversial topic—even within the scope of Christianity. Actually, this was one of the most difficult questions I have wrestled with as a Christian. I understand that many who read this will not agree with my conclusion, but it seems quite clear to me—both logic and the Bible clearly teach that God creates and predestines many to eternal punishment. Is it loving, you ask? But I ask “loving” according to whose standard? Is it just, you ask? Once again, “justice” according to whose standard?
Cannot the Potter break the work of His own hands? Are not the works of His hands His own to do with whatsoever He desires?
Here’s the thing—the question assumes much. One could also ask, why would God create people knowing that they will go to hell? So, unless the Christian also wants to deny the foreknowledge (the omniscience) of God as well, it seems they may have a similar predicament, right?
I understand that this is a controversial topic—even within the scope of Christianity. Actually, this was one of the most difficult questions I have wrestled with as a Christian. I understand that many who read this will not agree with my conclusion, but it seems quite clear to me—both logic and the Bible clearly teach that God creates and predestines many to eternal punishment. Is it loving, you ask? But I ask “loving” according to whose standard? Is it just, you ask? Once again, “justice” according to whose standard?
Cannot the Potter break the work of His own hands? Are not the works of His hands His own to do with whatsoever He desires?
Here’s the thing—the question assumes much. One could also ask, why would God create people knowing that they will go to hell? So, unless the Christian also wants to deny the foreknowledge (the omniscience) of God as well, it seems they may have a similar predicament, right?
Behind the question is the presumption of purpose on the part of God. If God creates a person for the singular or express purpose of that person’s eternal punishment, then this would be malicious indeed. It implies an all-powerful sadist: a cosmic bully who derives pleasure from pulling the wings from flies and setting them on fire. However, if this truly was the case, then sadism would be okay since the ground and foundation of all ethics and morals is, by logical necessity, God.
All would be lost.
However, who has ever claimed that eternal punishment was His sole or express purpose for predestining people to eternal punishment? Those, like me, who believe in predestination, do not claim such a thing. Rather, perhaps He creates unrepentant sinners and predestines them to eternal damnation so that He might 1) demonstrate His patience and long-suffering on vessels of wrath and 2) demonstrate His justice by condemning those who did not follow His ordinances and broke His laws. Since we know that all things (and Scripture says “all things”) work together for the glory of God, then perhaps His purposes in predestination are for His own glory?
Consider what the apostle Paul writes in his letter to the Romans:
“And not only so, but also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac, though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God’s purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls—she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”” (Romans 9:10-13 ESV)
Notice here that this is according to God’s election—His free choice—and not because of anything Jacob or Esau had done? The apostle continues:
“What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God’s part? By no means!” (Romans 9:14)
Did you notice that Paul anticipates the very objection we are dealing with, here, in what I am writing?
“For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.” So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy.” (Romans 9:15-16)
Doesn't this verse explicitly say that it does not matter upon human will or exertion, but only upon God’s choice and election? Of course it does! That’s exactly what it is saying.
And, in case we missed it that last time, Paul uses yet another example to express that same teaching in the very next verses:
“For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I might show my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.” So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills.” (Romans 9:17-18)
Who has mercy?—God! Who hardens?—God!
“You will say to me then, “Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?”” (Romans 9:19)
Isn't this essentially the same question I am addressing because of predestination in this note?
“But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, “Why have you made me like this?”” (Romans 9:20)
Cannot the Potter break the work of His own hands? Are not the works of His hands His own to do with whatsoever He desires?
“Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for dishonorable use? What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory….” (Romans 9:21-23)
So, as we see, all of creation—including mankind—belongs to God, and He is free to do with it whatsoever He pleases. The free choices of mere, finite men cannot and do not limit the infinite knowledge, power, or the free choices of God to do with His creation all the He pleases. There is no injustice or wrongdoing on God's part just because He freely elects some to be the subjects of His mercy while freely choosing to bring others to justice. For all have sinned. Therefore, all deserve their just-desserts for violating God's infinite holiness.
All would be lost.
However, who has ever claimed that eternal punishment was His sole or express purpose for predestining people to eternal punishment? Those, like me, who believe in predestination, do not claim such a thing. Rather, perhaps He creates unrepentant sinners and predestines them to eternal damnation so that He might 1) demonstrate His patience and long-suffering on vessels of wrath and 2) demonstrate His justice by condemning those who did not follow His ordinances and broke His laws. Since we know that all things (and Scripture says “all things”) work together for the glory of God, then perhaps His purposes in predestination are for His own glory?
Consider what the apostle Paul writes in his letter to the Romans:
“And not only so, but also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac, though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God’s purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls—she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”” (Romans 9:10-13 ESV)
Notice here that this is according to God’s election—His free choice—and not because of anything Jacob or Esau had done? The apostle continues:
“What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God’s part? By no means!” (Romans 9:14)
Did you notice that Paul anticipates the very objection we are dealing with, here, in what I am writing?
“For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.” So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy.” (Romans 9:15-16)
Doesn't this verse explicitly say that it does not matter upon human will or exertion, but only upon God’s choice and election? Of course it does! That’s exactly what it is saying.
And, in case we missed it that last time, Paul uses yet another example to express that same teaching in the very next verses:
“For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I might show my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.” So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills.” (Romans 9:17-18)
Who has mercy?—God! Who hardens?—God!
“You will say to me then, “Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?”” (Romans 9:19)
Isn't this essentially the same question I am addressing because of predestination in this note?
“But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, “Why have you made me like this?”” (Romans 9:20)
Cannot the Potter break the work of His own hands? Are not the works of His hands His own to do with whatsoever He desires?
“Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for dishonorable use? What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory….” (Romans 9:21-23)
So, as we see, all of creation—including mankind—belongs to God, and He is free to do with it whatsoever He pleases. The free choices of mere, finite men cannot and do not limit the infinite knowledge, power, or the free choices of God to do with His creation all the He pleases. There is no injustice or wrongdoing on God's part just because He freely elects some to be the subjects of His mercy while freely choosing to bring others to justice. For all have sinned. Therefore, all deserve their just-desserts for violating God's infinite holiness.
Original posted on Facebook, May 15, 2012
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